[Lunar Shadow]

Quote: (Originally Posted by uncertaindrumer)

To tell you the truth, I made a mistake; I should have said, the only two Solemn Declarations by a Pope of infallibility were those two doctrines.

As for the infallibility matter of contraception. JPII obviously condemned and did so expressly in at least one of his encyclicals. Pope Benedict holds that this was an infallible declaration.

Now, even if it wasn't ,this doesn't matter. Catholics are supposed to hold to all Church teachings, whether they have been infallibly defined or not. They are usually only infallibly defined after there is a strong question as to what the Church really believes. CLEARLY, everyone knows what the Church teaches regarding contraception so whether or not there has been an infallible declartion does not matter.

It is my belief though that sometime in the near future we will either get certain confirmation that JPII was speaking infallibly, or simpyl an infallible declaration that condoms are sinful.

I hope this answers your question, although I will admit, this stuff gets confusing.

yes.... but where is the basis for the churches teaching that condoms and other such contraception are sinful? because like I said I have yet to find any base for where they could get that ideology.